yxee
Well-known member
Very strange, and to me illogical, argument.
I think the crucial difference is between triggering article 50 and leaving the EU. One does not automatically follow the other.
It is leaving the EU which will revoke rights granted to the people of the UK by parliament - and so this is the thing that requires a vote of MPs.
Invoking article 50 does not, in itself, do this.
So I *think* the argument is that, since invoking the article is not the same action as leaving the EU, it doesn't revoke rights granted by parliament, and therefore doesn't need a vote by MPs. Which presumably means the vote by MPs will have to come at the end of the article 50 process... once we've negotiated everything.
I think...?