Tooting Gull
Well-known member
- Jul 5, 2003
- 11,033
Argentina became a country in it's own right in1853 so there couldn't have been Argentine settlements there.
Yes, there could. Whether you agree with it or not, the right they claim (and it is shaky) is via the Spanish anyway before they had independence.
But this is more about commom sense. I reckon your average toddler would point at a map and say 'What the f**k are we doing owning that?". If they watched South Park.