clapham_gull
Legacy Fan
- Aug 20, 2003
- 25,877
Selling the ground to the owner for £80m, one way to try and get around the rules. Gambled on PL promotion and lost the gamble last season and look like they arent going to do it this season either in 17th place.
I’m confused about this whole story - is the problem actually the sale of the stadium to the owner or the dates when the transfer actually happened?
If it’s the actual sale then why? We don’t own our stadium, TB does via The Community Stadium Ltd and Brighton and Hove Albion Football Club Ltd pays rent for its use.
If it’s the dates then presumably the profit on the sale of the Derby stadium will be allowed in this year’s accounts.
I’m confused about this whole story - is the problem actually the sale of the stadium to the owner or the dates when the transfer actually happened?
If it’s the actual sale then why? We don’t own our stadium, TB does via The Community Stadium Ltd and Brighton and Hove Albion Football Club Ltd pays rent for its use.
If it’s the dates then presumably the profit on the sale of the Derby stadium will be allowed in this year’s accounts.
I’m confused about this whole story - is the problem actually the sale of the stadium to the owner or the dates when the transfer actually happened?
If it’s the actual sale then why? We don’t own our stadium, TB does via The Community Stadium Ltd and Brighton and Hove Albion Football Club Ltd pays rent for its use.
If it’s the dates then presumably the profit on the sale of the Derby stadium will be allowed in this year’s accounts.
The ‘sale’ was for double the actual value-
‘The Rams have leased back the ground, which was said to have been independently valued at £80m despite it being on the club's books as an asset worth £41m, from a company owned by Morris.’
Surely the ‘actual value’ is what it was ‘independently valued’ at. By selling at market value that gives the club the £39m profit. Are the FA now saying that profits on the sale of assets aren’t now allowed in the calculation for FFP?
What if we sold a player contract to Royale Union Saint-Gilloise at a profit, would that be allowed?
Keep up at the back!Surely the ‘actual value’ is what it was ‘independently valued’ at. By selling at market value that gives the club the £39m profit. Are the FA now saying that profits on the sale of assets aren’t now allowed in the calculation for FFP?
What if we sold a player contract to Royale Union Saint-Gilloise at a profit, would that be allowed?
It's "The Derby Way".Selling the ground to the owner for £80m, one way to try and get around the rules. Gambled on PL promotion and lost the gamble last season and look like they arent going to do it this season either in 17th place.
Selling the ground to the owner for £80m, one way to try and get around the rules. Gambled on PL promotion and lost the gamble last season and look like they arent going to do it this season either in 17th place.
In the case of Wednesday, the problem is both the date upon which the sale was apparently made and where it appears in the accounts. I think with Derby it's more that the stadium is not worth what they've valued it at - purely to get round FFP.
I'm sure there's someone on here who know's better [MENTION=31]El Presidente[/MENTION]
Keep up at the back!