Guy Fawkes
The voice of treason
- Sep 29, 2007
- 8,297
I have heard that the tax lost to the Inland Revenue is somewhere in the region of £100m.
There was a report recently about the impact of the taxc increase by Labour recently on high earners, I think that it was following the top rate change from 40% to 50%.
The report was carried out a year after the new rate was introduced and concluded that the new rate hadn't actually increased the income to the treasury as a result of this tax increase, the main reason was that these individuals were happy to pay 40% but the increase meant that a large number of these earners chose to move their affairs abroad, either basing their businesses in tax havens or becoming non-dom.
The Government in this report admitted that they didn't expect to gain any extra revenue from the tax increase for this reason and that the whole thing had been a PR exercise designed to look like they were acting tough and making lower earners more willing to pay the new higher basic rate that they were left with.
So the question is why do Inland revenue feel that he should be a special case when any other donator or high earner could easily change his circumstances to dodge tax? and should people whose business and income is made abroad and could well be paying tax on this there, get taxed in this country too? - how do you calculate what they owe, or why would they even bother returning to the UK to invest / spend some of their wealth?
It is just envy that creates these kneejerk reactions and feelings of injustice.
This is a similar article to the one i was thinking of Gordon Brown was warned from the start over 50p top tax rate - Times Online
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