LamieRobertson
Not awoke
LOL...Walton proved wrong
But he used the advantage after Mings had the ball, which is a different phase of play.
Is it because he was slightly behind the villa player when he tackled him so was back to onside ?
For me it’s not another phase of play. Mings has chested it and a bloke standing 30 yards offside has robbed him of the ball.
Villa would much rather have a free kick there. They have been given no advantage and it’s a City offence. It makes no sense.
That was a great game and the 1st goal shouldn't have stood
Once mings has control of the ball, a new phase of play has been entered.
Mings has no control over the situation whatsoever.
Once mings has control of the ball, a new phase of play has been entered.
For me it’s the same phase of play. Mings would’ve protected the ball completely differently had he known a player was behind him. The ball hadn’t even hit the floor before the City player was challenging for it. Mings has no control over the situation whatsoever.
But that isn't how it works. A player in an offside position, receiving the ball from an opponent who deliberately plays the ball, is not considered to have gained an advantage. Mings deliberately played the ball. So under the laws of the game, he is onside,
But that isn't how it works. A player in an offside position, receiving the ball from an opponent who deliberately plays the ball, is not considered to have gained an advantage. Mings deliberately played the ball. So under the laws of the game, he is onside,