why do you assume it should be? for that matter why assume that it is? you will find some in Brazil with higher standard of living to some in Germany and same apply across combinations. because of different cultures and political histories, the average across these country differ. yes inequity exists but why should individual effort and risk not be rewarded? why should a factory owner in Egypt with a lifetime spend all hours building up a business not see a greater reward than a worker content to clock off go home to his family each evening?
capitialism doesnt cause poverty, poverty is the default state for mankind, at least as we recognise it. without the company creating a factory we wouldnt have factory work with wages and disposable income, we have subsistance farming. yes, a company moves production abroad to increase profits by lowering wages, however in that country the wages offered are substantially better than anything else on offer and the workers raise their standard of living. so what you are against is globalisation, you want to keep all work here presumably and not share the wealth? or you want to pay a Spainard the same as a Brazilian or Japanese, regardless of how that effects thier living standard locally? i doubt it. the irony is that capitialism brought about the end of feudalism, as effort and endevour are rewarded and people can create their own wealth, but because not everyone is "equal" in capitialism its somehow bad, never mind the massive improvements to everyones living standards along the way.
Erm, not it didn't. Feudalism ended during the 15th century as a combination of the 100 Years War and the Black Death wiped out the vast pool of labour that Feudalism required to function.