I'm obviously missing something.
The thread appears to suggest that prior to offering shares for sale the seller has to 'offer' them to an existing shareholder/director. This poses a few questions:
1. If an offer is made, does it have to be accepted? For example if an offer were to be made at say .0001p/share would it have to accepted? If not what happens
2 In this situation, is it compulsory that the offer be referred to an independent valuer, even when it is know that the charges will exceed the value of the sale?
2. Does the act of offering shares to an existing shareholder mean that the condition has been satisfied, even if the offer is subsequently rejected?
3. Can the shares be offered and if the offer, due it being derisory, is rejected , can the shares be offered on the open market?
DK is required to let other existing shareholders know that he wishes to sell (some of) his shares. He does this by telling the club, who act as middle man (typically either the FD or the Company Secretary) and they inform the other shareholders. The other shareholders then have 28 days to decide whether they wish to make an offer. If the buying shareholder and the selling shareholder agree on a price, the deal is done. If they do not agree on a price, the club organises for the auditors to come in and independently value the shares. Whatever value they determine is then binding on the buyer and seller.