If you had lost the civil case, on what grounds could you sue for malicious harrassment.
Probably only on the grounds that he could prove he definitely did not do it.
If you had lost the civil case, on what grounds could you sue for malicious harrassment.
Thank you. Seems mighty unjust to me. May as well scrap the criminal justice system and do it all through the civil court.
How much could I claim for damages for some of the fat munters I’ve had the trauma of waking up next to after a night on the lash?
Probably only on the grounds that he could prove he definitely did not do it.
This is what puzzles me. If there is new evidence then go to re-trial but it’s simply unjust to then use a less stringent court to find him guilty and make him pay 80k.
Don’t get me wrong, if he’s guilty I wanna see him punished but this makes a total mockery of our courts.
I have heard of someone being found guilty in criminal court and then also in a civil court to get compensation but not one or the other.
Thank you. Seems mighty unjust to me. May as well scrap the criminal justice system and do it all through the civil court.
Was reading in the paper today about a woman who accused a man of rape, it went to court and the charges were not proven and the man walked. She later took out civil proceedings and he was found guilty by a sheriff (Scotchland) and ordered to pay £80k in damage.
Now,my question is surely if you have been to trial, been found innocent or unproven or acquited or not guilty etc, how is that not the final word? How can somebody then go on to find you guilty without a criminal re-trial? Sounds rather unfair to me.
And how would someone end up in jail if we had no criminal justice system?
I qualified in Scots Law many many years ago but haven't really used the Criminal Aspect of it for 30 years. The Civil Courts and Laws are much the same as in England but the Criminal System can in some instances be very different due to ''Case Law'' ; however, I always remember a Tutor once saying. ''Although the Criminal and Civil Courts are very different you can overlap them both if you want a ''definitive ruling'' on a case.
In Criminal Law a case can take place and a final ruling may never be reached (That's ''Not Proven'' ). With Civil Law, there has to be, except in really extenuating circumstance where a ''final ruling'' is not made. It may not be an outcome people look for because the Judiciary decides and not the Public but in about 98% of cases a ruling on one side or the other is usually reached.
I wonder if we'll now see a spate of cases resulting from events that took place on 18-31 holidays in the 70s and 80s. The prospect of getting £80K for having a night of drunken sex might be quite appealing to some..............
Unless she's 'on the social' with no assets. She might have found a solicitor willing to take the case on a 'no win, no fee' basis, ensuring that she couldn't lose either way.It's not something she would have gone into lightly without a strong case because if she had lost she would have been liable for all the legal costs which including her own and the defendant's could have easily reached over £60,000 and probably significantly more.
Unless she's 'on the social' with no assets. She might have found a solicitor willing to take the case on a 'no win, no fee' basis, ensuring that she couldn't lose either way.
Unless she's 'on the social' with no assets. She might have found a solicitor willing to take the case on a 'no win, no fee' basis, ensuring that she couldn't lose either way.