Creaky
Well-known member
What you've quoted from the accounts answers your question.
Note 27 says that TB converted £40m of loans into equity. Note 28 says that 40m shares were issued at £1 each. As it's a private company, fair value is set by transactions done. Thus by doing this, TB effectively set the "fair value" at £1/share, thus there is no gain/loss.
FWIW, I think there must be some "political" reason why TB was happy to accept only 40m shares for his £40m debt, since by any normal share valuation, the share price one would impute would be, imo, well under 10p a share. I can think of various reasons why TB might want to do that, but I have no desire to speculate on his motives.
However, that decision does allow DK to say, if he wants to, that since TB "paid" £1/share, that's what the shares are worth.
Excuse my ignorance on these matters but I find them quite interesting.
Are you saying that the CLN held by TB would allow him to buy equity based on what ever value he wanted to put on them? If that were the case wouldn't that produce a potential liability that would have to be included in the accounts? Likewise if the "fair value" of the shares could be set at say 10p by the auditors then by redeeming the CLN at par couldn't it be argued that the company has made a gain which would reduce the losses of the company for the year?
Don't CLNs fix the share price either at plus or minus the "fair value" or a fixed figure? One with an open ended value seems somewhat unusual.