looney
Banned
- Jul 7, 2003
- 15,652
No. They are not to be used as any sort of indication. The ONS made that very clear. No amount of sophism or pedantry regarding the definitions of invalid or unreliable will alter that. You want the quote verbatim? Here's the quote verbatim:
“While these figures are useful in giving an insight into the caseload of the police and how this is changing, they are not believed to provide a reliable measure of trends in violent crime,” the ONS report said. The ONS said that police-registered crime must be interpreted with caution, attributing much of the rise to changes in recording practices and increased confidence of victims in coming forward. Its preferred measure, the Crime Survey for England and Wales, gave a total of 10.6 million incidents, which was a fall of 10 per cent.
If you still believe, after that quote, that you can use the police figures as an indication of crime trends then you're saying that the ONS are wrong and that they do not understand statistics.
No because when they said......
"While these figures are useful in giving an insight into the caseload of the police and how this is changing, they are not believed to provide a reliable measure of trends in violent crime,"
They are saying the same as what I said. I said you paraphrased invalid when they were unreliable, or not beleived to be a reliable measure in their words.
And when they say,
"attributing much of the rise to changes in recording practices and increased confidence of victims in coming forward"
Attributing is conjecture, as is indicative which I said. OK attributing causes is different but its saying the same thing.