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After how many passes from a set piece can a goal be considered from "open play"?

After how many passes from a set piece can a goal be considered "from open play"?

  • 0 (seriously?)

    Votes: 3 7.7%
  • 1

    Votes: 12 30.8%
  • 2

    Votes: 8 20.5%
  • 3

    Votes: 4 10.3%
  • 4 or more

    Votes: 7 17.9%
  • Other - please elucidate/it's way more complex than that, you fool.

    Votes: 5 12.8%

  • Total voters
    39
  • Poll closed .


Goldstone1976

We Got Calde in!!
Helpful Moderator
NSC Patron
Apr 30, 2013
14,125
Herts
Yes. It may come from a practice routine, but it is still open play. The taker has touched it, there are no restrictions on the defending team. Play is open to everyone.

OK! Opinions, eh?
 




AnotherArch

Northern Exile
Apr 2, 2009
1,199
Stockport & M62
Perhaps the question posed in the thread title is a little confusing, and the real question is: "how man passes (touches?) within a set piece......". So it is not "when does open play begin?", but "when does a set piece situation finish?".
The 'set piece' includes both the restart action (kick or throw) and the subsequent activities directly arising from it, as commonly used terminology describes goals scored from corners, free kicks and long throws to be "from a set piece".
I will invite extension of this debate by proposing that a 'set piece' ends after the 'first phase' as in the crystal-clear and explicit offside rule - but I won't be on any further pages!
 


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