Buzzer
Languidly Clinical
- Oct 1, 2006
- 26,121
DTES said:Right, if anyone out there is still somehow not convinced of the fact that they are equal, here is another proof, even more watertight:
1. You can write 0.99999999r = 0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 + 0.0009....
Then using standard geometric summation (which unfortunately I can't use proper notation for in this, but imagine the symbols idf you will...)
Using a = 0.9, r = 0.1 we have
Sn = a + ar + ar^2 + ar^3 + .....
= a / (1-r)
=0.9 / (1-0.1)
=1
(Call me a geek all you want, but you can't say I'm wrong...)
Hang on a minute. This is at least 15 years ago I'm trying to remember this but isn't there a qualification that states
as n tends towards infinity Sn tends towards 1/(1-r)
rather than the blanket statement of Sn EQUALS 1/(1-r)?
Mathematicians, please help me here.