Got something to say or just want fewer pesky ads? Join us... 😊

O/T Calling all MATHS geniuses



I'm a bit rusty but I'll have a go:

Y+1 = (100/P) ^ (360/D)
(Y+1)^D = (100/P)^360
(Y+1)^(D/360) = 100/P
P*((Y+1)^(D/360)) = 100
P = 100/((Y+1)^(D/360))


....or what Seagull27 said

Aha yes. I got the same result as you but didn't click that 100*(Y+1)^(-D/360) is the same as 100/(Y+1)^(d/360).

I get stuck or go majorly wrong around the point where is stop:
Y=(100/P)^(360/D) -1
Y+1=(100/P)^(360/D)
log Y+1= log(100/P)^(360/D)
log Y+1= (360/D)*log(100/p)
STUCK


well, log(100/p) is the same as log 100 - log P, giving
log Y+1 = (360/d)(log 100 - log P)
then divide both sides by (360/d)
(log Y+1)(D/360) = log 100 - log P
add log P to both sides
log P + (log Y+1)(D/360) = log 100
take away (log Y+1)(D/360) from both sides
log P = log 100 - (log Y+1)(D/360)
using log powers (which was used earlier to go from log(100/p) to 100 - log P
log P = log (100/(Y+1)(D/360))
then de-log; the (D/360) gets applied to the (Y+1) as a power
P = 100/(Y+1)^(D/360)
 
Last edited:






Jul 24, 2003
2,289
Newbury, Berkshire.
Maths vs. RE
 

Attachments

  • AlgebraCalvin.jpg
    AlgebraCalvin.jpg
    45.7 KB · Views: 14


Badger

NOT the Honey Badger
NSC Patron
May 8, 2007
13,013
Toronto
Aha yes. I got the same result as you but didn't click that 100*(Y+1)^(-D/360) is the same as 100/(Y+1)^(d/360).

Then comes the argument over which is the neater answer
 


ForestRowSeagull

Well-known member
Jan 6, 2011
976
Now Brixton
I got some paper out and solved it now. What i'm surprised at is why the bloody hell do you need to know this ?! I thought maths was just for nerds to pleasure their autistic side.
 




ForestRowSeagull

Well-known member
Jan 6, 2011
976
Now Brixton
Aha yes. I got the same result as you but didn't click that 100*(Y+1)^(-D/360) is the same as 100/(Y+1)^(d/360).




well, log(100/p) is the same as log 100 - log P, giving
log Y+1 = (360/d)(log 100 - log P)
then divide both sides by (360/d)
(log Y+1)(D/360) = log 100 - log P
add log P to both sides
log P + (log Y+1)(D/360) = log 100
take away (log Y+1)(D/360) from both sides
log P = log 100 - (log Y+1)(D/360)
using log powers (which was used earlier to go from log(100/p) to 100 - log P
log P = log (100/(Y+1)(D/360))
then de-log; the (D/360) gets applied to the (Y+1) as a power
P = 100/(Y+1)^(D/360)

Thanks, once I remembered the log rules I was fine. Hard one though
 


Codner's Crackpipe

Active member
Feb 25, 2005
184
Gosh, thanks everyone. Only on NSC could it be raining rain men.

I got some paper out and solved it now. What i'm surprised at is why the bloody hell do you need to know this ?! I thought maths was just for nerds to pleasure their autistic side.


It's a yield to price calculation for a Spanish 18 month treasury bill.
 














Fef

Rock God.
Feb 21, 2009
1,729
There was the constipated mathematician who worked it out with a pencil and paper.
When it got too hard he worked it out with axes and logs.

I'll get my coat.
 




Albion and Premier League latest from Sky Sports


Top
Link Here